You need to take your household registration card to register at the Armed Forces Department where you are registered, but I feel like you can’t catch up. Registration has closed in most areas now, so I suggest you hurry up. To register from the Ministry of Armed Forces, you only need your household registration, ID card, graduation certificate and three 1-inch photos. Registration is very simple, and then just wait for the notification to take the physical examination. Registration for military recruitment begins in October, physical examinations will be conducted in batches from November 1st to mid-November, political review will be conducted from mid-November to late November, enlistment notices will be issued on December 1st, and clothing will be issued from early December (if you leave) The shipment will be postponed if it is issued later). Troop transportation will begin in mid-December (transport of new recruits in batches: December 10th to December 31st). The new recruits must depart before December 31st of each year. Pre-registration can be done at the subdistrict office. Those who have not participated can go directly to the Armed Forces Department to register. In rural areas, you can also go to the village committee or go to the militia company commander. The young people recruited are those who have graduated from high schools (including vocational high schools, technical secondary schools, and technical schools) and above. Employees (including workers, managers, and technical personnel) of enterprises and institutions with a high school diploma and above, and enterprises and institutions with a high school diploma and above. Workers, students in private universities with non-academic education, unenrolled students accepted by colleges and universities, and young people studying in various college entrance examination cram schools should also be recruited. Recruitment for young women is limited to recent high school graduates. The age for recruitment is: 18 to 20 years old for young men; 21-year-old young people with a high school education or above and employees of enterprises and units can also be recruited; according to their own volition, the age limit can be relaxed to 23 for those with a college degree or above; young women For those aged 17 to 19 years and above. Junior college is 23 years old. The person in charge of the recruitment office mentioned the appearance requirements for young people joining the army - young people with dyed hair, eyebrow tattoos, tattoos, nostril piercing, etc. will not be able to join the army. The person in charge emphasized that the military is a special institution with strict requirements, especially in terms of military appearance and discipline, and the seriousness of soldiers must be maintained. Conditions for becoming a non-commissioned officer directly: Recruiting non-commissioned officers must be male citizens who have passed training at a secondary (higher) vocational and technical school (academy) and obtained a junior (intermediate) level or above vocational qualification certificate issued by the state, and have corresponding majors. The basic conditions are: (1) The political review and physical examination meet the political and physical conditions for enlisted citizens to serve in active service; (2) Those who graduate from secondary vocational and technical schools must obtain a junior vocational qualification certificate or above issued by the state and be engaged in this major Those who have worked for more than one year; those with a college degree or above must obtain an intermediate or above professional qualification certificate issued by the state. They can recruit fresh graduates or professional and technical personnel from enterprises and institutions; (3) Age is generally not more than 25 years old. Those who are in special need of the military and have a technician professional qualification certificate can be relaxed to 27 years old. The age group has been narrowed compared to the original regulations, which were generally no more than 28 years old. For those with special professional needs in the military or with technician or senior technician professional qualification certificates, the age can be relaxed to 30 years old. The General Staff Headquarters, the General Political Department and the General Logistics Department of the Chinese People's Liberation Army will develop later.
Chapter 1 General Provisions
Article 1 This standard is formulated in accordance with the "Physical Examination Standards for Citizens Recruited".
Article 2 The military and armed police colleges and universities recruit soldier students, ordinary middle school and high school graduates and graduate students from local areas, ordinary colleges and universities recruit and select national defense students, and the military accepts graduates from ordinary colleges and universities. Physical examination is applicable to this standard.
Chapter 2 Surgical Projects
Article 3: Males must be above 162cm in length and females must be above 160cm in length to qualify. Among them, the length of men in remote and ethnic minority areas can be relaxed to 160cm, and the length of women can be relaxed to 158cm.
Men are qualified if their weight does not exceed 25% and not less than 15% of the standard weight, and women's weight does not exceed 15% and not less than 15% of the standard weight. The calculation formula of standard weight is:
Standard weight (kg) = length (cm)-110
Article 4 craniocerebral malformation, craniocerebral surgery, brain trauma and after brain trauma Syndrome, unqualified.
Neck stiffness, torticollis, grade III goiter, tuberculous lymphadenitis, severe gynecomastia, severe gynecomastia, unqualified.
Article 5: Congenital dysplasia of limbs, joints and spine causing deformity or dysfunction, injuries and sequelae of bones, joints, soft tissues, bursae, habitual dislocation, chronic spinal diseases, affecting limb function Tendon sheath disease, unqualified.
Mild thoracic deformity (except for submarine majors); simple fracture, no functional impairment or sequelae after one year of cure, qualified.
Article 6 If the length of the two lower limbs is unequal by more than 2cm, the distance between the medial condyles of the femur and the distance between the medial malleolus of the tibia exceeds 7cm, or the gait is abnormal although it does not exceed the prescribed range, the athlete will be disqualified.
Article 7: Fingers (toes) are mutilated and deformed, flat feet with complete disappearance of the plantar arch, hallux valgus that affects function, corns, calluses, and severe clefts that affect long-distance walking are unqualified.
Article 8 Malignant tumors or benign tumors with the possibility of malignant transformation, benign tumors, cysts, scars and scars in various parts that affect the appearance or function are not qualified.
Article 9: Vasculitis, aneurysm, severe varicose veins of lower limbs, and varicocele are disqualified. Among them, those with moderate varicose veins of the lower limbs and varicocele were unqualified for command.
Article 10: Vitiligo, scars, melanin nevus, pigmentation, hemangioma, etc. that are large in area or affect military appearance; tattoos with "words or patterns" on exposed parts of the body wearing short clothes and with a diameter exceeding 2cm, other parts If the diameter exceeds 3cm, or if there are still obvious scars after surgical treatment, which affects the appearance of the military, they will be disqualified.
Tattoos based on national customs and habits in minority areas, and those wearing short clothes that do not significantly affect the military appearance are qualified.
Article 11: Those with a history of thoracic or abdominal surgery, hernia, anal prolapse, anal fistula, severe old anal fissure, annular hemorrhoids, mixed hemorrhoids with a diameter greater than 0.5cm or more than two, will not be qualified. Those who are more than six months after appendicitis surgery, more than one year after inguinal hernia or femoral hernia surgery, and who have no sequelae are qualified.
Article 12: Injuries and sequelae such as malformation or underdevelopment of genitourinary organs that affect their function, cryptorchidism, inflammation of the genitourinary system, tuberculosis, and stones, etc., will not qualify.
The following conditions are qualified:
(1) The non-communicating hydrocele of the spermatic cord without conscious symptoms is not larger than the uninjured testicle, and the testicular hydrocele together with the testis is not larger than the normal testicle. It is twice the size of the unaffected testicle;
(2) There are no more than two spermatic cord and epididymal nodules without tenderness and no subjective symptoms, each with a diameter of no more than 0.5cm;
(3) Mild acute foreskinitis, scrotalitis, excessive foreskin, no adhesion between phimosis and glans, cryptorchidism descended to the scrotum through surgery;
(4) Communicating tunica vaginalis Fluid, no recurrence or sequelae for more than one year after surgery.
Article 13: Generalized tinea corporis, tinea capitis, severe underarm odor, tinea manuum, tinea pedis, onychomycosis, scabies, psoriasis, lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, chronic eczema and urticaria, Those with neurodermatitis and other contagious or difficult-to-treat skin diseases, and those with a history of close contact with infectious leprosy patients will not be qualified. Among them, tinea cruris, tinea versicolor, acne vulgaris, chilblains, localized neurodermatitis with a diameter not exceeding 3cm, and mild underarm odor (except submarine and armor majors) are qualified.
Article 14: People with gonorrhea, syphilis, chancroid, lymphogranuloma venereum, non-gonococcal urethritis, genital warts, genital herpes, AIDS and virus carriers are not qualified.
Chapter 3 Internal Medicine Items
Article 15: Blood pressure: systolic blood pressure 90mmHg to 140mmHg (12.00 kPa to 18.66 kPa), diastolic blood pressure less than 90mmHg (12.00 kPa), heart rate 50 to 100 times per minute, qualified.
Article 16: Structural heart disease, hypertension, vascular disease, non-physiological systolic murmur, arrhythmia and other chronic cardiovascular diseases are not qualified.
Article 17: Chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, bronchial asthma, tuberculosis, bullae, spontaneous pneumothorax, tuberculous pleurisy and other chronic respiratory diseases will not be qualified.
Article 18: Those with severe chronic gastric and intestinal diseases, diseases of the liver, gallbladder, spleen, and pancreas, visceroptosis, abdominal masses, anemia, and poor nutritional status will be disqualified.
The following conditions are qualified:
(1) Supine position, breathing calmly, palpable liver no more than 1.5cm below the costal margin of the right midclavicular line, no more than 3cm below the xiphoid process, quality Soft, thin-edged, smooth, without tenderness or knocking pain, and the upper limit of the liver is within the normal range;
(2) Splenomegaly caused by previous malaria, schistosomiasis, and kala-azar, on the left side No more than 1cm below the costal margin.
Article 19: Rheumatism and rheumatoid diseases, urinary, blood, endocrine and metabolic system diseases, and various stages of diabetes are not qualified.
Article 20: Malaria, schistosomiasis, kala-azar, amoebic dysentery, filariasis, viral hepatitis and other infectious diseases are not qualified. Among them, filariasis and bacillary dysentery have been cured for more than half a year; malaria, kala-azar, schistosomiasis, amoebic dysentery, leptospirosis, and epidemic hemorrhagic fever have been cured for more than two years without sequelae; and acute viral hepatitis (B, C Hepatitis (excluding hepatitis) is qualified if it has not recurred for more than one year after being cured.
Article 21 Epilepsy or other neurological diseases and their sequelae, mental disorders, schizophrenia, neurosis, personality disorders, mental retardation, sleepwalking, enuresis, psychoactive substance abuse and dependence, Unqualified.
Article 22: Stuttering that affects normal expression of language is disqualified.
Article 23: Those with severe allergies to food, drugs and other substances or those with severe allergies will not be qualified.
Chapter 4 Otolaryngology Project
Article 24: If the whisper hearing on both sides is less than 5m, the applicant is unqualified.
Whispering reaches 5m on one side and no less than 3m on the other side. Qualified in other majors except submarine major.
Article 25: Obvious auricle deformity, external auditory canal atresia, recurrent inflamed preauricular fistula, severe external auditory canal eczema, severe otomycosis (involving the tympanic membrane or frequent subjective symptoms such as tinnitus and hearing loss), Unqualified.
Mild otomycosis, other majors except surface ships and submarines are qualified.
Article 26: Ear diseases such as tympanic membrane perforation, severe invagination, suppurative otitis media, mastoiditis, etc. are disqualified.
The tympanic membrane is slightly inverted, the scar or calcification of the tympanic membrane does not exceed one third of the tympanic membrane, the ear pressure function and tympanic membrane movement are good, and the submarine professional is qualified.
Article 27: Vertigo, severe motion sickness, seasickness, and airsickness are disqualified.
Article 28: Nasal deformity, chronic sinusitis, severe hypertrophic rhinitis, atrophic rhinitis, nasal polyps, middle turbinate polypoid changes and other chronic nasal diseases that are difficult to cure are not qualified.
Middle turbinate hypertrophy that does not affect sinus drainage, a small amount of mucus-purulent secretion in the middle meatus without conscious symptoms, mild atrophic or hypertrophic rhinitis, recurrent allergic rhinitis, hypertrophic rhinitis, Severe nasal septum deviation and repeated epistaxis are eligible except for submarine and airborne majors.
Article 29: Those who have lost their sense of smell are disqualified.
Slow sense of smell, qualified in other majors except chemical defense, medical, and oil majors.
Article 30: Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, an incurable pharyngeal and laryngeal disease that affects swallowing and pronunciation functions, is not qualified.
Chapter 5 Ophthalmology Project
Article 31: The naked visual acuity of each eye is less than 4.5 (0.3), the corrected visual acuity is less than 4.9 (0.8), and the diopter is ±6.00DS Above the equivalent spherical lens, it is unqualified.
The unaided distance visual acuity of each eye is above 4.6 (0.4), the corrected visual acuity is above 4.9 (0.8), the diopter is below ±6.00DS equivalent spherical lens, command, surface ships, submarines, armor, surveying and mapping , Radar professional qualifications. Among them, those who have undergone excimer laser surgery for more than six months and have no complications are qualified except for submarine and airborne majors.
Article 32: Weak red and green colors, color blindness, unqualified.
Article 33: Diseases of the eyelids, eyelid margins, conjunctiva, and tear apparatus that affect eye function will not qualify.
Article 34: Protosis, nystagmus, eye muscle disease, movement disorder, dominant strabismus, disqualification.
If the internal phoria exceeds 10Δ, the external phoria exceeds 5Δ, and the superior phoria exceeds 2Δ, you are qualified except for command, surface ships, submarines, airborne, armor, surveying and mapping, and radar majors.
Article 35: Diseases of the cornea, sclera, iris and ciliary body, pupil deformation, unqualified.
Corneal nebula that does not affect visual function and non-progressive pterygium outside the limbus are qualified except for command majors.
Article 36: Diseases of the lens, vitreous body, choroid, retina, optic nerve, glaucoma and suspected glaucoma will not qualify.
The following conditions qualify:
(1) A small number of congenital small opacities in the lens that do not affect visual function;
(2) Short vitreous body Arterial remnants, a few filaments and punctate vitreous opacity, asymptomatic;
(3) Old retinal and choroidal lesions, smaller than 1 PD in diameter outside the macular area.
Chapter 6 Dental Items
Article 37: Third-degree caries, two or more missing teeth juxtaposed together or three or more missing teeth, severe periodontitis , temporomandibular joint disease, cleft lip, palate and their postoperative scars, oral diseases that affect chewing and pronunciation functions, complete dentures and complex removable dentures, are unqualified.
Caries and missing teeth function well after treatment and repair, and are qualified.
Article 38: Moderate or above dental fluorosis, enamel hypoplasia, obvious defects or missing incisors, canines, and bicuspids, overlay exceeding 5 mm, open bite exceeding 3 cm, upper and lower jaw overbite Deep overbite to the opposite gum, uneven dentition and crossbite affecting the bite, moderate periodontitis, and unqualified submarine professional.
The submarine professional is qualified in the following situations:
(1) One incisor is missing and the function of the fixed denture is good, or there is no gap in the dentition and the replacement tooth has good function;
(2) Individual incisors that do not affect occlusion have uneven or overlapping dentition;
(3) Individual incisors that do not affect occlusion have mild crossbite;
< p> (4) Malocclusions and deformities that function well after orthodontic treatment.Article 39: Chronic mumps, parotid cysts, and oral tumors are disqualified.
Chapter 7 Gynecology Items
Article 40: Abnormal development of internal and external genitalia, unqualified.
Article 41: All stages of pregnancy are unqualified.
Article 42: Acute or chronic pelvic inflammatory disease, functional uterine bleeding, reproductive organ tuberculosis, and pelvic tumors are disqualified.
Chapter 8 Psychological Test Items
Article 43 If the test results of the general aptitude test meet the following two items at the same time, it will be unqualified:
(1) The score for word application is less than 4 points;
(2) The score for two-dimensional rotation is less than 3 points;
(3) The score for addition and subtraction is less than 7 points;
(4) The score of symbol conversion is less than 55 points.
Article 44: If the test is carried out in accordance with the "China MBTI-G Price Type Scale" and the test determines that the personality type is ENFP, INTJ, or ISTP, and meets one of the following circumstances, a structured interview shall be conducted :
(1) I score is greater than 30 points;
(2) N score is greater than 30 points;
(3) F score is greater than 28 points; < /p>
(4) P score is greater than 28 points.
The structured interviews are evaluated based on the "Psychological Interview Evaluation Scale for Cadets Recruited by Military Academies". Those with a score greater than 7 are unqualified.
Chapter 9 Auxiliary Examination Items
Article 45 Abdominal B-ultrasound examination items include liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, uterus, bilateral appendages, and abdominal cavity. Organ malformation, hypoplasia, single kidney, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, kidney, uterus and double accessory diseases, abdominal mass, space-occupying lesions, ascites, pregnancy, are unqualified.
Meet the following conditions and have no abnormal examination results:
(1) The number of liver cysts (non-inflammatory, non-parasitic, non-tumor) does not exceed 3 and The maximum diameter is not greater than 1.0cm;
(2) A single clearly diagnosed hepatic hemangioma (located in the liver parenchyma), the maximum diameter is not greater than 1.0cm;
(III) ) The maximum diameter of a single renal cyst is not greater than 1.0cm;
(4) The maximum diameter of a unilateral simple ovarian cyst is not greater than 3.0cm.
Article 46: If chest X-ray examination reveals thoracic deformity, heart, lung, mediastinum and other organic lesions, the patient will be disqualified.
Meet the following conditions and have no abnormal examination results:
(1) There are no more than 3 isolated calcification points in bilateral lung fields, the diameter is no more than 0.5cm, and the density is high and Clear margins and no surrounding infiltration;
(2) Mild enhancement of lung markings, ruling out respiratory diseases;
(3) Slight blunting of the costophrenic angle on one side, ruling out cardiac disease , lung, and chest diseases.
Article 47 If the electrocardiogram is normal or approximately normal, the applicant is qualified.
Article 48 Routine blood examination must meet the following standards:
(1) The total number of white blood cells 4.0~10.0х109/L (4000~10000/m3);
(2) White blood cell classification, neutrophils 50% to 70%, lymphocytes 20% to 40%;
(3) Red blood cell count, male 4.0~5.5х1012/L (400 ~5.5 million/mm3), women 3.5~5.0х1012/L (3.50~5.5 million/mm3);
(4) Platelet count, 100~300х1012/L (100~300,000/mm3);
(5) Hemoglobin, 120g/L~180g/L (12~18g/dl) for men and 110g/L~150g/L (11~15g/dl) for women.
Article 49: The urine test must meet the following standards:
(1) Appearance is transparent and light yellow;
(2) The pH value is 4.5~8.0;
(3) Urine specific gravity is 1.003~1.035;
(4) Urinary protein is negative to trace;
(5) Urinary ketone bodies are negative;
(6) Urinary glucose is negative;
(7) Bilirubin is negative;
(8) Urinary bile element is negative to weakly positive;
(9) Microscopic examination (centrifuged sedimentation specimen, the same below) red blood cells 0~occasionally seen in males/high magnification, 0~3 females/high magnification, microscopic examination of white blood cells 0~3 in males/high magnification, 0~5 females /High power microscope, microscopic examination shows no or occasionally transparent casts and no other casts;
(10) Negative urine pregnancy test.
Article 50: Routine stool examination meets the following standards:
(1) Normal appearance;
(2) Microscopic examination of red blood cells 0 to 2/ High magnification lens, white blood cells 0 to 2/high magnification lens;
(3) Tests for hookworm, whipworm, polyps, schistosomiasis, liver fluke, ginger worm eggs and intestinal protozoa were negative.
Article 51: Serum alanine base transferase shall be checked by continuous monitoring method (enzyme kinetic method), and the test shall be qualified if less than 40 units are used.
Article 52: Serum hepatitis B virus surface antigen is tested by enzyme-linked immunoassay, and the result is negative.
Article 53: Serum HIV antibodies are tested by enzyme-linked immunoassay, and the result is negative.
Article 54: Serum Treponema pallidum antibodies are tested by enzyme-linked immunoassay, and the result is negative.
Article 55: Urine drugs (reagents) are tested by the colloidal gold method, and the negative result is qualified