A. intense pain stimulation
B. Bacterial infection and poisoning
C. Burn toxin enters the blood.
D. A large amount of liquid oozes out
E. massive destruction of blood cells
2, does not belong to the open injury are
A. Wear and tear
B. thorn
C. collision injury
D. cut
E. avulsion injury
3. Which of the following injuries can't be washed directly with plenty of water?
A. Boiling water scald
B. Sulfuric acid burn
C. Dry lime combustion
D. Flame burn
E. Hot oil scald
4. For patients with extensive burns, the start time of fluid replacement plan in shock stage should be
A. Time of injury
B. Emergency time
C. Start intravenous infusion time
D. Start debridement time
E. Admission time
5, the most reliable basis for the diagnosis of malignant tumor is
A. Laboratory inspection
B. Pathological examination
C.b ultrasound
D. Radionuclide examination
E. x-ray photography
6, tumor radiotherapy is easy to damage the skin, nursing should be
A. Hot compress physiotherapy
B. Keep your skin clean and dry
C. massage
D. soapy water cleaning
E. external application of Xiaozhong ointment
7. Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?
A. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
B. Increased heart rate
C. doze off
D. fatigue
E. trembling hands
8, hyperthyroidism patients to judge the degree of illness and treatment effect is an important sign
A. Degree of goiter
B. Patient's cardiac function
C. The patient's mood
D. blood pressure
E. basal metabolic rate
9. A young woman, suspected of hyperthyroidism, whose blood pressure 18.6/9.3kPa and pulse rate 100 beats/min before getting up in the morning should belong to.
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Normality
C. Mild hyperthyroidism
D. Moderate hyperthyroidism
E. Severe hyperthyroidism
10, which is wrong about preoperative preparation for hyperthyroidism?
A. control the disease with antithyroid drugs
B. in order to understand the function of vocal cords, laryngoscopy must be done.
C, using compound iodine agent to make glands smaller and harder.
D propranolol can be used for iodine intolerance.
E. using atropine to reduce respiratory secretions
1 1, acute peritonitis can be complicated due to incomplete absorption of exudate.
First, shock
B, poisoning
C, abdominal abscess
D, intestinal paralysis
E, water, electrolyte disorder
12, when using gastrointestinal decompression, if there is obstruction, you should
First, replace the stomach tube
B, pressurized suction
C, can use syringe to pump isotonic saline 10~20ml to flush the gastric tube.
D, clamp the gastric tube for 65438 0 h to suspend decompression.
E, stop decompression and suction.
13. Which statement about acute perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer is inappropriate?
A, often occurs in the front wall of the stomach and duodenal pylorus.
B, sudden pain in the upper abdomen
C, nausea and vomiting
D, there is obvious peritoneal stimulation.
E, free gas will appear under the diaphragm.
14, after the operation of gastroduodenal ulcer, the indication that patients can eat is ().
First, anesthesia disappears and blood pressure is stable.
B, the condition improved and the patient began to think about food.
C. after the wound is sutured.
D, 3 days after operation
E, restore intestinal peristalsis, anal exhaust.
15, anal pain after defecation, a small amount of blood on the surface of stool, should be considered as
First, anal fistula
B, perianal abscess
C, thrombotic external hemorrhoids
D, internal hemorrhoids
E, anal fissure
16, the preferred dehydration drug for reducing intracranial pressure is
First, furosemide
B, 20% mannitol
50% glucose solution
D, 25% sorbitol
E. human serum albumin
17, the typical consciousness change of acute epidural hematoma is:
First, primary coma
Second-degree coma
C, intermediate waking period
D, continuous coma
light coma
18, which pair of nerves are most easily damaged by anterior cranial fossa fracture?
First, the olfactory nerve
B, facial nerve
C, auditory nerve
abducens nerve
E, vagus nerve
19, rib fractures mostly occur in
I. 1~3 rib
B, 4~7 ribs
C, 8~ 10 rib
D, 1 1 rib
12 rib
20, the focus of preoperative care of patients with thoracic surgery is
Psychological care to eliminate anxiety and fear.
B, monitoring vital signs
C, correct malnutrition
D, maintaining water, electrolyte and acid-base balance
E, prepare for respiratory tract and improve lung function.
Simulated examination questions and answers of nurse qualification examination 《 Surgical Nursing 》 II. Case analysis questions; Each case has at least 3 questions, and each question has 6 ~ 12 alternative answers, among which 1 one or several correct answers. 1 point for each correct answer, 1 point for each wrong answer, and 0 point for this question.
Abstract: The patient was a 46-year-old male porter. Repeated coughing, expectoration for half a year, chronic constipation for many years. In recent months, there has been a lump in the scrotum when carrying heavy objects, which is pear-shaped and lying flat is fashionable.
1. What diseases do you mainly consider for initial diagnosis?
A. Scrotal tumor
B. Colon neoplasms
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. External abdominal hernia
E. Groin tumor
Correct answer: 1. laser record
2. What are the main causes of external abdominal hernia?
A. the strength of abdominal wall decreases
B. Congenital dysplasia
C. Poor healing of surgical incision
D. Increased intra-abdominal pressure
E. cough
F. constipation
G. Pregnancy
Correct answer: 2. advertisement
3. According to the recovery degree and blood supply of hernia, the types of external abdominal hernia are:
A. Easily reducible hernia
B. indirect inguinal hernia
C. straight hernia
D. Irreducible hernia
E. Femoral hernia
F. closed hernia
G. strangulated hernia
H. umbilical hernia
Correct answer: 3. ADFG
Simulated questions and answers of the nurse qualification examination "Surgical Nursing" 3 1. What should I pay attention to when changing dressing for a specific infected wound?
A. There should be a special person to change the dressing, and it is not allowed to change the dressing continuously with the general wound;
B. dressing change after infected wound;
C. dressing change before infected wound;
D. change the dressing before contaminating the wound;
E. change the dressing before cleaning the wound.
A: A.
2. Wounds that are not suitable for one-stage suture?
A. Open abdominal injury for 27 hours;
B, cutting the mouth and lips for 20 hours;
C. Open chest injury 14 hours;
D. 16 hour forehead knife wound;
E. 12 hour foot glass scratch.
Answer: e
3. The choice of closed thoracic drainage?
A. film drainage strip;
B. rubber drainage tube;
C. Vaseline gauze drainage strip;
D. cigarette drainage strip;
E. gauze drainage strip.
Answer: b
4. clean the injured finger?
A. after debridement of contaminated wound;
B. wounds after anti-inflammation;
C. aseptic surgical incision;
D. Wounds within 6-8 hours after injury;
E. wound after drainage.
Answer: c
5. The calf is bleeding. Where should the tourniquet be tied?
A.65438+ 0/3 under the thigh;
B.65438+ 0/3 of inner thigh;
C. On the thigh1/3;
D. above the ankle joint;
E. Mid-calf.
A: A.
6. What is the incorrect statement about finishing the work after dressing change?
A. The drainage tube that needs to be reused should be cleaned, disinfected and soaked;
B. Seasoning should be poured into the dirt bucket;
C. Soaked articles still need to be disinfected again;
D the instruments and medicine bowls should be soaked in 2% glutaraldehyde 1~2 hours;
E. unused items can be put back in their original places.
Answer: e
7. What is the suture removal time after upper abdominal surgery?
A.2~3 days;
B.4~5 days;
C.5~7 days;
D.7~ days;
E.~ 12 days.
Answer: d
8. What solution should be used to wash the wound infected by anaerobic bacteria?
A.3% hydrogen peroxide;
B.2.5% tincture of iodine;
C.0.5% povidone iodine (iodophor);
D. physiological saline;
E.3% boric acid solution.
A: A.
9. Which of the following is the correct direction for sticking tape after dressing change?
A. consistent with the long axis of the body;
B. perpendicular to the long axis of the body;
C. perpendicular to the long axis of the wound;
D. consistent with the long axis of the wound;
E. radial pasting.
Answer: b
10. Which of the following is the first dressing change after perforated appendicitis surgery?
A. 3 days after operation;
B. once the dressing is wet, it should be changed;
C.65438+ 0-day morning after operation;
D. 2 days after operation;
E.65438+ 0-day afternoon after operation.
Answer: b
1 1. Which of the following statements about wound drainage is incorrect?
A. When indwelling the drainage tube, pay attention to observe whether the drainage is unobstructed;
B. The drainage strip used for deep drainage cannot be rotated or pulled out;
C. The more serious the infection, the longer the drainage time;
D drainage can be removed when there is no obvious drainage within 1~2 days after operation;
E. For contaminated or infected wounds, drainage should be used preventively.
Answer: b
12. Streptococcus pyogenes
What are the characteristics of group A infected pus?
A. sticky, yellow and tasteless;
B. thick and tasteless;
C. thin and reddish;
D. light green, sweet;
E. it's thick and smelly
A: A.
13. Can the contaminated wound be completely debrided 12 hours after the injury?
A. primary suture;
B. delayed suture;
C. dressing change;
D. wet application of antibiotics;
E. physical therapy
Answer: b
14. What solution can be used for external application of granulation tissue edema wound?
A.0. 1% benzalkonium bromide;
B. 5-% silver nitrate;
C.2.5% tincture of iodine;
D.0.02% potassium permanganate;
E.30% magnesium sulfate.
Answer: e
15. When will the stitches be removed after limb surgery?
A.4~5 days;
B.5~7 days;
C.7~ days;
D.~ 12 days;
E. 14 days.
Answer: d
16 What is the injury? What is 3~5% sodium chloride suitable for?
A. wet compress of granulation edema wound;
B. external use of normal granulation wounds;
C. the wound is clean and moist;
D. wet compress the infected wound;
E. irrigation of abscess cavity and wound surface.
A: A.
17. What solution should be used externally at the initial stage of local inflammation?
A. about 20% silver nitrate;
B.0.02% furacilin yarn;
C.~20% fish fat cream;
D.30% magnesium sulfate;
E. vaseline gauze.
Answer: c
18. Which of the following is not a dressing change notice?
A. make the bed and sweep the floor within a few minutes before dressing change;
B. fully expose the wound;
C. take the patient's own comfortable position;
D. Explain to patients the possible discomfort caused by dressing change;
E. explain the purpose and necessity of dressing change to patients.
A: A.
19. What is the tension-reducing suture used for?
A. neck incision;
B. chest incision;
C. limb incision;
D. abdominal incision;
E. perineal incision.
Answer: d
20. Can a wound with overgrowth of granulation tissue be changed?
A.5 silver nitrate;
B.0. 1% ethacridine;
C.70% ethanol;
D.2.5% tincture of iodine;
E. about 20% fish fat ointment.
A: A.
2 1. What is the suture removal time after lower abdominal surgery?
A.4~5 days;
B.5~7 days;
C.7~ days;
D.~ 12 days;
E. 14 days.
Answer: d
22. Vaseline gauze fills deep wounds. Which of the following is true?
A vaseline gauze should be completely inserted into the wound, leaving no tail on the surface;
B vaseline gauze should not be inserted too deep into the wound, and a large space should be left in the deep part to facilitate tissue growth;
C any gauze inserted into the wound should reach the bottom, but it should not be too tight to facilitate the discharge of pus;
Examination questions and answers of surgical nursing 20 15
D vaseline gauze inserted into the wound should be tightly bandaged to prevent suppuration;
E vaseline gauze is not inserted into the wound, but only used as a surface covering.
Answer: c
23. What is the most important nursing care for non-surgical treatment of gastric perforation?
A. take a semi-recumbent posture;
B. fasting and intravenous infusion;
C. accurately record the number of visits;
D. effective gastrointestinal decompression;
E. use antibiotics on time.
Answer: d
24. What is the main route of gastric cancer metastasis?
A. direct infiltration;
B. peritoneal implantation transfer;
C. lymphatic metastasis;
D. blood transfer;
E. long-distance transfer.
Answer: c
25. Which of the following is the early manifestation of acute perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer?
A. Sudden and severe pain in the upper abdomen accompanied by obvious peritoneal irritation;
B. hematemesis and melena;
C. chills and high fever;
D. mobile dullness appears in the abdomen;
E. the boundary of liver dullness shrinks and disappears.
A: A.
What are the mistakes in the nursing methods of patients with acute perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer complicated with shock?
A. maintain effective gastrointestinal decompression;
B. maintain water, electrolyte and acid-base balance;
C. use antibiotics;
D. take a semi-recumbent posture;
E. fasting and drinking are forbidden.
Answer: d
27. The severity of acute massive hemorrhage of gastroduodenal ulcer mainly depends on?
A. the length of ulcer focus;
B. the amount and speed of bleeding;
C. patient tolerance;
D. intensity of abdominal signs;
E. the bleeding site.
Answer: b
28. What are the early symptoms of gastric cancer?
A. epigastric pain;
B. anemia;
C. abdominal mass;
D. eating infarction;
E. indigestion, burping.
Answer: e
29. What are the characteristics of acute abdominal perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer?
A. abdominal weakness;
B. mild tension in abdominal muscles;
C. the abdominal muscles are tense and have no tenderness;
D. the abdominal muscles are slightly tense and there is no rebound pain;
E. abdominal pain, tenderness and rebound pain.
Answer: e
30. Which of the following is the histological classification of gastric cancer as a special type of cancer?
A. papillary adenocarcinoma;
B. tubular adenocarcinoma;
C. mucinous adenocarcinoma;
D. adenosquamous carcinoma;
E. poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma.
Answer: d
3 1. What is the most prominent clinical manifestation of pyloric obstruction?
A. epigastric pain;
B. vomiting and lodging;
C. emaciation and dehydration;
D. upper abdominal mass;
E. burping and burping.
Answer: b
32. Which of the following statements about acute perforation of gastroduodenal ulcer is incorrect?
A. It often occurs in the front wall of stomach and duodenum near pylorus;
B. sudden and severe pain in the upper abdomen;
C. nausea and vomiting;
D. obvious peritoneal irritation sign;
E in all cases, there is free gas under the diaphragm.
Answer: e
33. Where are the prone parts of bleeding from gastric and duodenal ulcers?
A. Great curvature of stomach or anterior wall of duodenum;
B. small curvature of the posterior wall of the stomach or duodenum;
C. Great curvature of stomach or posterior wall of duodenum;
D. small curvature of the anterior wall of the stomach or duodenum;
E. none of the above is correct.
Answer: b
34. Gastrojejunum RouX- After subtotal gastrectomy.
What are the advantages of En-Y anastomosis?
A. prevent bile and pancreatic juice from entering the postoperative residual stomach;
B. prevent postoperative obstruction;
C. prevention of gastric emptying disorder;
D. prevent ulcer recurrence;
E. prevention of dumping syndrome.
A: A.
35. What's wrong with the manifestations of dumping syndrome?
A. it occurs 2-4 hours after eating;
B. Abdominal pain, palpitation, sweating, nausea and vomiting;
C. in severe cases, there may be bowel sounds and diarrhea;
D. lying flat for a few minutes can relieve it;
E. severe cases can cause shock.
Answer: e
36. What are the indications for allowing patients to eat after gastroduodenal ulcer surgery?
A. Anesthesia disappears and blood pressure is stable;
B. the condition has improved;
C. After the stitches are removed from the wound;
D. 3 days after operation;
E. recovery of intestinal peristalsis and anal exhaust.
Answer: e
37. What's wrong with preoperative dietary guidance for subtotal gastrectomy?
A. a small amount of food;
B. protein is low;
C. high calorie;
D. high vitamins;
E. easy to digest and non-irritating.
Answer: b
38. What kind of care should be paid special attention to in patients with acute massive hemorrhage of gastroduodenal ulcer during observation and non-surgical treatment?
A. Blood pressure and pulse rate should be closely monitored during blood transfusion and infusion;
B. record the amount of hematemesis and hematochezia;
C. keep the intravenous infusion unobstructed;
D. keep the gastric tube unobstructed;
E. Make routine preparations before operation.
A: A.
39. Which of the following surgical methods is the first choice for the treatment of gastroduodenal ulcer in China?
A. total gastrectomy;
B. subtotal gastrectomy;
C. vagotomy;
D. selective vagotomy;
E. highly selective vagotomy.
Answer: b
40. Gastric cancer can occur in any part of the stomach, the most common in?
A. small curvature of stomach;
B. gastric antrum;
C. cardia;
D. gastric curvature;
E. anterior wall of stomach.
Answer: b
4 1. Which of the following is secreted by the main cells of the gastric gland?
A. pepsinogen;
B. hydrochloric acid;
C. alkaline solution;
D. gastrin;
E. anti-anemia factor.
A: A.
42. For the elderly patients with scar pyloric obstruction, the gastric acid is low, and the general situation is very poor. What kind of action should be taken?
A. subtotal gastrectomy;
B. sinus resection;
C. vagotomy plus sinus resection;
D. highly selective vagotomy;
E. gastrojejunostomy.
Answer: e
43. Gastric vagotomy is mainly used for treatment?
A. gastric ulcer;
B. pyloric obstruction;
Question and answer of surgical nursing examination 20 15(2)
C. duodenal ulcer;
D. gastric ulcer with perforation;
E. gastric mucosal cancer.
Answer: c
44. What is the most serious complication after type Ⅱ subtotal gastrectomy?
A. anastomotic bleeding;
B. rupture of duodenal stump;
C. anastomotic obstruction;
D. anastomotic ulcer;
E. anastomotic rupture.
Answer: b
45. How long after X-ray barium meal examination, there is still barium residue in the stomach, suggesting that there is scar pyloric obstruction?
A.4 hours;
B.6 hours;
C.8 hours;
D. 12 hours;
24 hours
Answer: e
46. What are the main treatment measures for non-surgical treatment of acute pancreatitis?
A. inhibit pancreatic juice secretion;
B. Close observation of vital signs;
C. rapid intravenous rehydration;
D. correct electrolyte disorder;
E. Use antibiotics correctly.
A: A.
47. What is the key to the treatment of biliary shock?
A. supplementing blood volume;
B. using large doses of antibiotics;
C. application of vasoactive drugs;
D. correct the acid-base balance disorder;
E. biliary decompression and drainage.
Answer: e
48. Which of the following methods is of little value in the diagnosis of biliary diseases?
A. oral cholecystography;
B. venocholangiography;
C. percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography;
D. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography;
X-ray plain film
Answer: e
49. Does not meet the characteristics of abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis?
A. it happens after a full meal or drinking;
B. the pain is located in the middle and upper abdomen;
C. with frequent vomiting;
D. intermittent epigastric pain;
E. pain can radiate to the left waist.
Answer: d
50. What are the typical manifestations of Charcot syndrome?
A. Abdominal pain, jaundice, chills and high fever;
B. Abdominal pain, chills, high fever and jaundice;
C. jaundice, chills, high fever and abdominal pain;
D. chills, high fever, abdominal pain and jaundice;
E. chills, high fever, jaundice and abdominal pain.
Answer: b
Simulated questions and answers of the nurse qualification examination "Surgical Nursing" 4 1. Multiple choice questions (choose a correct answer from the four optional answers of each small question and fill its number in brackets)
A. it is not advisable to use powerful painkillers. B. Try to diversify the types of drugs and reduce the side effects of drugs.
C. there is no need to limit the use of sedatives. When digitalis is used, the blood calcium concentration is monitored.
2. The index of blood volume supplement after anti-shock treatment is (b)
A. pulse pressure
C. central venous pressure >; 20 cmh20d。 Mean arterial pressure
3. Every time inhaled or exhaled by alveoli is (C).
A. vital capacity B. tidal volume C. alveolar ventilation D. per minute
thruput
4. Breathing in patients with early shock often manifests as (a)
A. Deep and fast B. Deep and slow C. Shallow and fast D. Shallow and slow
5. In order to improve the positive rate of blood bacterial culture in patients with sepsis, it is best to take blood at (b).
A. Before high fever and chills B. During high fever and chills
C. at any time after high fever and chills.
6. A diet that supplements or strengthens certain nutrients to meet the special requirements of patients is (C)
A. Essential diet B. Non-essential diet C. Component diet D. Special diet
7.pH 7.3 1, PaCO 260 mmHg, PAO 285 mmHg, Sb 23 mmol/L, this blood gas result suggests (a).
A. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
8. The preferred crystal solution for fluid replacement in burn patients is (b).
A.b. equilibrium solution
C.5% glucose saline d. 5% sodium bicarbonate deep solution
9. When using heparin in large doses, the antagonist that should be prepared is (C).
A. vitamin c protamine d albumin
10. The effect of applying thiouracil before hyperthyroidism is (a)
A. inhibition of thyroxine synthesis B. inhibition of thyroxine release
C. reduce blood supply to thyroid D. make thyroid smaller and harder.
1 1. The most common lymphatic metastasis route of breast cancer is (b).
Axillary path
C. Deep lymphatic network of breast D. Subcutaneous communicating lymphatic vessels between bilateral breasts
12. The patient suffered a closed upper abdominal injury for 4 hours, with pale face, cold limbs and blood pressure of 75/50mmHg.
Pulse rate 120 beats/min, abdominal x-ray is normal, so (d? )
A. Gastric rupture B. Severe soft tissue injury of abdominal wall
C. rupture of liver and spleen D. rupture of gallbladder